What real number is equal to the expression \(2 + \frac{4}{1 + \frac{4}{2 + \frac{4}{1 + \cdots}}}\), where the 1s and the 2s alternate?
Let a = 2 + 4
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1 + 4
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........
So we have
a = 2 + 4
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1 + 4
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a simplify
a = 2 + 4a
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(a + 4)
a = (2a + 8 + 4a)
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(a + 4)
a( a + 4) = 6a + 8
a^2 + 4a = 6a + 8
a^2 - 2a - 8 = 0
(a - 4) (a + 2) = 0
Setting both factors to 0 and solving for "a" we get that a = 4 or a = -2
We can reject -2 because a is positive
So......the real number is 4
Solution:
So, we have \(2+\frac{4}{1+\frac{4}{2+\frac{4}{1+\cdots}}} \), which at first looks rather scary. But we notice a pattern! Because the nested fractions descend forever, the fraction essentially contains itself! So let \(a\) equal this fraction:
\( a = 2+\frac{4}{1+\frac{4}{2+\frac{4}{1+\cdots}}} \)
Thus,
\( a = 2+\frac{4}{1+\frac{4}{a}} \)
So now, we simply need to solve for a.
\(a = 2+\frac{4}{1+\frac{4}{a}} = 2 + \frac{4}{\frac{4+a}{a}}= 2+\frac{4a}{4+a}=\frac{8+2a+4a}{4+a}=\frac{8+6a}{4+a}\)
Getting rid of the fraction by multiplying y \(4+a\), we get
\(4a + a^2 = 8 + 6a \Longrightarrow a^2 - 2a - 8 = 0\)
So now we factor...
\(a^2 - 4a + 2a - 8 = 0\)
\(a(a-4)+2(a-4) = 0\)
\((a+2)(a-4) = 0\)
So \(a\) can be \(-2\) or \(4\). Since we know, by looking at the fraction, that \(a\) must be positive, \(a\), and the value of the fraction, must be \(\boxed{4}\).
Tell me if you have any questions,