+0  
 
+11
969
4
avatar+9459 

\(e^{\pi i}+1=0\)

\(e^{\pi i}=-1\)

\(\pi i = ln(-1)\)<---------- ?????

Is there any mistakes in this?

 May 30, 2016

Best Answer 

 #3
avatar+33151 
+11

Sorry Max, this is a well known fact!  

 

However, it's always more interesting to discover these things for yourself than just being told by someone else!  Well done!

 May 30, 2016
 #1
avatar+117834 
+11

Hi Max,

 

I looked it up up in wolfram|alpha

 

http://www.wolframalpha.com/input/?i=log(-1)

 

There is no fault to your logic :)

 

I do agree though, it is interesting :)

 May 30, 2016
 #2
avatar+9459 
0

I thought I was the first one to discover this fact XD

 May 30, 2016
 #3
avatar+33151 
+11
Best Answer

Sorry Max, this is a well known fact!  

 

However, it's always more interesting to discover these things for yourself than just being told by someone else!  Well done!

Alan May 30, 2016
 #4
avatar
+5

The left hand side is imaginary, so why would you expect the right hand side to be real ?

 May 30, 2016

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