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If you have 2 dice. what is the probability of rolling a 4 at least once after 7 rolls?

 Apr 10, 2015

Best Answer 

 #1
avatar+354 
+8

The probability of throwing at least one 4 on a pair of dice is 1 in 6, so the probability of sucess is 1/6. The probability of faliure is 1-1/6 which is 5/6. As it is after 7 rolls, there are 7 trials in the experiment.

Putting these values into an equation for binomial distribution, nCr*P^(r)*Q^(n-r), where P is prob of sucess, q is prob of failure, r is number of sucesses and n is the number of trials, we get...

$${\left({\frac{{\mathtt{7}}{!}}{{\mathtt{1}}{!}{\mathtt{\,\times\,}}({\mathtt{7}}{\mathtt{\,-\,}}{\mathtt{1}}){!}}}\right)}{\mathtt{\,\times\,}}{\left({\frac{{\mathtt{1}}}{{\mathtt{6}}}}\right)}^{{\mathtt{1}}}{\mathtt{\,\times\,}}{\left({\frac{{\mathtt{5}}}{{\mathtt{6}}}}\right)}^{\left({\mathtt{7}}{\mathtt{\,-\,}}{\mathtt{1}}\right)} = {\mathtt{0.390\: \!714\: \!306\: \!127\: \!114\: \!8}}$$

as the probability of getting a 4 in one roll.

 

This is very likely wrong.

Anyone better at maths should check this first, since I'm very very unconfident in my binomial skills.

 Apr 10, 2015
 #1
avatar+354 
+8
Best Answer

The probability of throwing at least one 4 on a pair of dice is 1 in 6, so the probability of sucess is 1/6. The probability of faliure is 1-1/6 which is 5/6. As it is after 7 rolls, there are 7 trials in the experiment.

Putting these values into an equation for binomial distribution, nCr*P^(r)*Q^(n-r), where P is prob of sucess, q is prob of failure, r is number of sucesses and n is the number of trials, we get...

$${\left({\frac{{\mathtt{7}}{!}}{{\mathtt{1}}{!}{\mathtt{\,\times\,}}({\mathtt{7}}{\mathtt{\,-\,}}{\mathtt{1}}){!}}}\right)}{\mathtt{\,\times\,}}{\left({\frac{{\mathtt{1}}}{{\mathtt{6}}}}\right)}^{{\mathtt{1}}}{\mathtt{\,\times\,}}{\left({\frac{{\mathtt{5}}}{{\mathtt{6}}}}\right)}^{\left({\mathtt{7}}{\mathtt{\,-\,}}{\mathtt{1}}\right)} = {\mathtt{0.390\: \!714\: \!306\: \!127\: \!114\: \!8}}$$

as the probability of getting a 4 in one roll.

 

This is very likely wrong.

Anyone better at maths should check this first, since I'm very very unconfident in my binomial skills.

radio Apr 10, 2015
 #2
avatar+129852 
0

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 Apr 10, 2015
 #3
avatar
+5

"2 dice" doesn't make sense unless we're adding them, that is, a 1 and a 3, or two 2s.  The probability of that is 3 out of 36 (1-3, 2-2, 3-1) which equals 1 out of 12. The probability of NOT totalling 4 is 11 out of 12. So the probability of not totalling 4, 7 times is (11/12)^7. The probability of at least one 4 is the opposite, 1 - (11/12)^7 which is 0.4561488217396119.

 Apr 11, 2015

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