+0  
 
0
612
3
avatar+1832 

How this 0 over 0 

 

 Dec 28, 2014

Best Answer 

 #2
avatar+33603 
+15

As x gets very large ln( (x+1)/(x-2) ) → ln( x/x ) → ln(1) = 0

and 1/√(x2 - 4) → 1/√x2 → 1/x → 0

.

 Dec 28, 2014
 #1
avatar+20 
0

i didn't calculate it but if it is 0/0 and the derivate of  is 0 then the expression's derivate should be derivate of the derivate of the divident divided by derivent of the divisor

so we derivate both to solve the equotation

i think

 Dec 28, 2014
 #2
avatar+33603 
+15
Best Answer

As x gets very large ln( (x+1)/(x-2) ) → ln( x/x ) → ln(1) = 0

and 1/√(x2 - 4) → 1/√x2 → 1/x → 0

.

Alan Dec 28, 2014
 #3
avatar+1832 
+5

thank you alan 

 Dec 29, 2014

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