How this 0 over 0
As x gets very large ln( (x+1)/(x-2) ) → ln( x/x ) → ln(1) = 0
and 1/√(x2 - 4) → 1/√x2 → 1/x → 0
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i didn't calculate it but if it is 0/0 and the derivate of is 0 then the expression's derivate should be derivate of the derivate of the divident divided by derivent of the divisor
so we derivate both to solve the equotation
i think
thank you alan