Hi 315,
Alan can you check this please.
I am not very good at limits but I will give it a shot.
$$\\0 so\\
\infty>sec^{-1}x \qquad \;\;and\;\; sec^{-1}x>\frac{1}{\pi}\\\\
\frac{1}{\pi}
limx→∞sec−1x2+1x+1=limx→∞sec−1x+1x1+1x=sec−1∞1=π2
I know pi/2 is right but I am really confused dismissing other answers.
This answer is DEFINITELY NOT completely correct.
My argument for #18:
1) Since lim(x→∞) (x² + 1)/(x + 1) = ∞,
2) the problem has the same limit as lim(x→∞) invSec(x)
3) which has the same limit as lim(x→∞) invCos(1/x)
4) and since lim(x→∞) (1/x) = 0,
5) it becomes lim(x→0) Cos(x) = 1.
Any questions on any of the step?
I haven't looked at the other two yet.
20) I drew a triangle to help me with this.
limx→∞Sin(tan−1x)limx→∞x√1+x2limx→∞x√x2(1x2+1)limx→∞xx√1x2+1limx→∞1√1x2+1=1√0+1=1
I will go back to my original analysis, except for the last step; it has a limit of π/2, not 1.
My argument for #20:
As x → π/2, tan(x) → ∞.
So, as x → ∞, invTan(x) → π/2.
As x → π/2, sin(x) → 1