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Hello, I'm fairly new to the MacLaurin and Taylor series, I've watched some videos on the topic and I think I've got the basics but I'm still unsure on some things, I hope someone here can enlighten me :)

 

I understand that you can rewrite for example sin(x) or cos(x). MacLaurin series is just a Taylor series where x=0.

The videos I've watched showed how to get a MacLaurin series of sin(x) and cos(x) but I don't understand why x=0 specifically, what is the reason of 0 instead of let's say 2. What's the difference between the value you pick?

 

I'm also curious if there is some proof for this, as in why this expansion works so nicely. 

 

I understand this question might be a little big so just some links that will head me in the right directions are appreciated as well!

 

Thank you in advance.

 Jun 22, 2016
 #1
avatar+129852 
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Here is some good info on this [ I hope it's not too "technical" ] 

 

http://www.math.ubc.ca/~bwallace/maths100_180_taylor_notes.pdf

 

Indeed........we are not limited to expansions only around 0, as some of the examples show.......!!!

 

 

 

cool cool cool

 Jun 22, 2016
 #2
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I skimmed over it and it seems just what I was looking for, it even has exercises!

I will read it thoroughly now. Thank you very much!

Quazars  Jun 22, 2016

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