(a) Let f(x): (-inf, 0) U (0 inf) --> R be defined by f(x) = x- (1/x)

Show that f(x) has no inverse function.

(b) Let g(x): (), inf) --> R be defined by gx) = x- (1/x)

Show that g(x) has an inverse function.

I don't understand this. Please help!

Guest Nov 22, 2020