(a) Let f(x): (-inf, 0) U (0 inf) --> R be defined by f(x) = x- (1/x)
Show that f(x) has no inverse function.
(b) Let g(x): (), inf) --> R be defined by gx) = x- (1/x)
Show that g(x) has an inverse function.
I don't understand this. Please help!
