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I was looking at this question: https://web2.0calc.com/questions/help-on-hard-division-problem and I'm having difficulty understanding part b. Could somone explain why in order for g(x) to be divisible by f(x), f(x) must have the same zeroes as g(x) and each of f(x)'s zeroes must be less than or equal to g(x)?

 

Thanks in advance!

 Feb 14, 2021
 #1
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This is easy.  Just use long division.

 Feb 15, 2021

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