+88 I was looking at this question: https://web2.0calc.com/questions/help-on-hard-division-problem and I'm having difficulty understanding part b. Could somone explain why in order for g(x) to be divisible by f(x), f(x) must have the same zeroes as g(x) and each of f(x)'s zeroes must be less than or equal to g(x)?
Thanks in advance!
+118608 grs75.
I owe you an appology.
The question that you are now asking about, that Hectictar answered, was not your question.
So there was no reason why you ever needed to respond to it.
Maybe you only just saw it.
I had it confused with this one that Max answered that you did not respond to.
https://web2.0calc.com/questions/complex-numbers_61
I think this was the original address I used but I cetainly did mistakenly also berate you for a different offense of which you were not guilty.
I am sorry.
