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I’ve been working on this series and I’m not sure if I’m approaching it the right way:

\(\sum_{n=1}^{\infty} \frac{(-1)^{n+1}}{n} \cdot \sin\!\left(\frac{1}{n}\right) \)

At first glance it looks like it might behave similar to the alternating harmonic series, but the sine term is throwing me off. I’m wondering whether this series converges absolutely, conditionally, or diverges. Has anyone tackled something like this before?

Pips NYT

 
 Oct 1, 2025
edited by skylerclooney  Oct 1, 2025

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