Can a trig identity be proved to be 1? Then how would i find the domain of validity?
ex:
Wouldn't this equal 1? Is that right?
I think what you are asking about is the trig identity cos^2 (x) + sin^2(x) =1.
(What you have written just cancels down to 1=1.)
To see that the above identity is true,draw yourself a right-angled triangle,name the sides a,b and c with a hypotenuse,b adjacent and c opposite . Now define sin and cos from these and use Pythagoras.
With regard to validity and domain,the identity is true for all angles.