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Can a trig identity be proved to be 1? Then how would i find the domain of validity?

ex:cos(x)/sin(x)=cos(x)/sin(x)

Wouldn't this equal 1? Is that right?

 May 27, 2015

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 #2
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$$cos(x)/sin(x)=cos(x)/sin(x)$$

This is true for all values of x except ofcourse sinx cannot=0 so x cannot equal any integer multiple of pi

 May 28, 2015
 #1
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I think what you are asking about is the trig identity cos^2 (x) + sin^2(x) =1.

(What you have written just cancels down to 1=1.)

To see that the above identity is true,draw yourself a right-angled triangle,name the sides a,b and c with a hypotenuse,b adjacent and c opposite . Now define sin and cos from these and use Pythagoras. 

With regard to validity and domain,the identity is true for all angles.

 May 27, 2015
 #2
avatar+118608 
+10
Best Answer

$$cos(x)/sin(x)=cos(x)/sin(x)$$

This is true for all values of x except ofcourse sinx cannot=0 so x cannot equal any integer multiple of pi

Melody May 28, 2015

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