+499 Hey guest! I'm assuming you meant \(37 \frac14 * 32\) for this problem.
To get the answer for this one, I'd imagine there are a variety of solutions, but rather than converting \(37 \frac14\) into a fraction and then multiplying that by 32(that would be quite cumbersome in my opinion), what I would do is split the mixed number into two parts. A whole number, and a fractional part(The reasoning behind this is not random!).
We can write the following equivalence:
\(37 \frac14 * 32 = (37 + \frac14) * 32\)
We then distribute this into:
\((37 + \frac14) * 32 = (37*32) + (\frac14 * 32)\)
Do you see now why this method makes this particular problem easy? If you haven't noticed, the right side, which is \((\frac14 * 32)\), reduces very nicely, as 4 is a factor of 32(32 is 4 * 8). This leaves us with:
\((37 * 32) + (8) \)
Plugging this in a calculator, this converts to:
\((1184) + (8) = 1192\) as our final answer
+2094 Here's a simpler way to solve it.
First, make 37 1/4 into a mixed number: 149/4
Then, multiply it by 32.
(149/4)*32 (simplify)
(149/1)*8=1192
Hope this helped!
