#1**0 **

Hey guest! I'm assuming you meant \(37 \frac14 * 32\) for this problem.

To get the answer for this one, I'd imagine there are a variety of solutions, but rather than converting \(37 \frac14\) into a fraction and then multiplying that by 32(that would be quite cumbersome in my opinion), what I would do is split the mixed number into two parts. A whole number, and a fractional part(The reasoning behind this is not random!).

We can write the following equivalence:

\(37 \frac14 * 32 = (37 + \frac14) * 32\)

We then distribute this into:

\((37 + \frac14) * 32 = (37*32) + (\frac14 * 32)\)

Do you see now why this method makes this particular problem easy? If you haven't noticed, the right side, which is \((\frac14 * 32)\), reduces very nicely, as 4 is a factor of 32(32 is 4 * 8). This leaves us with:

\((37 * 32) + (8) \)

Plugging this in a calculator, this converts to:

\((1184) + (8) = 1192\) as our final answer

jfan17 Mar 25, 2020

#2**+1 **

Here's a simpler way to solve it.

First, make 37 1/4 into a mixed number: 149/4

Then, multiply it by 32.

(149/4)*32 (simplify)

(149/1)*8=1192

Hope this helped!

CalTheGreat Mar 25, 2020