Consider the following statement: Let \(f\) be a function, such that for all \(a\) and \(b\) in the domain of \(f\), \(f(a) = f(b)\) implies \(a=b\). Then the function \(f\) has an inverse.True or false?
if the statement $f(a) = f(b)$ implies that $a = b$, that tells us the function is invertible, or that each input has a unique output. all invertible functions have inverses. your answer is True.
Thank you so much.