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Consider the following statement: Let \(f\) be a function, such that for all \(a\) and \(b\) in the domain of \(f\)\(f(a) = f(b)\) implies \(a=b\). Then the function \(f\) has an inverse.True or false? 

 Mar 29, 2021
edited by Guest  Mar 29, 2021
 #1
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if the statement $f(a) = f(b)$ implies that $a = b$, that tells us the function is invertible, or that each input has a unique output. all invertible functions have inverses. your answer is True.  

 Mar 29, 2021
 #2
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Thank you so much.

Pyroxene17  Mar 29, 2021

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