Does the Following is correct and sufficient to prove the Riemann Hypothesis?
More see the invited Article The Oval Pylon.
$$for all $n>1$ and prime $p$ there exists a complex number
$$s=\cfrac{p^{2}+1}{4}$$ such that
$$\underset{k=1}{\overset{\infty}{\prod}}i\cfrac{1}{2-\cfrac{2}{p_{k}^{s}}}=\zeta(s)=\underset{n=1}{\overset{\infty}{\sum}}\cfrac{1}{n^{s}}.$$
Then we have
$$\underset{p\rightarrow\infty}{\lim}\cfrac{1}{2-2p^{\frac{1}{4}(-1-p^{2})}}=\cfrac{1}{2}.$$
\mathrm{$$
