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Let f(x) be a real function and π‘₯ ∈ ℝ. Assume that limπ‘₯β†’π‘Ž 𝑓(π‘₯) = 𝑙, where π‘Ž, 𝑙 ∈ ℝ.

 

Is this sufficient to conclude that 𝑓(π‘Ž) = 𝑙 (and hence the continuity of f(x) at π‘Ž)? Provide a detailed explanation and, if necessary, discuss discontinuity

 
 Oct 22, 2020

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