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Is the Domain of f(x)=(x+4)(x-4)/(x-4) equal to the domain of g(x)=x+4?Justify your answer

Guest Oct 29, 2014

Best Answer 

 #1
avatar+92808 
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No...the graph of g(x) is continous. The graph of f(x) will look similar to g(x), except there will be a "hole" at x = 4. The reason for this is that "4" makes the denominator of f(x) = 0......and that's not allowed.....

 

CPhill  Oct 29, 2014
 #1
avatar+92808 
+10
Best Answer

No...the graph of g(x) is continous. The graph of f(x) will look similar to g(x), except there will be a "hole" at x = 4. The reason for this is that "4" makes the denominator of f(x) = 0......and that's not allowed.....

 

CPhill  Oct 29, 2014

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