+0  
 
0
251
1
avatar

Is the Domain of f(x)=(x+4)(x-4)/(x-4) equal to the domain of g(x)=x+4?Justify your answer

Guest Oct 29, 2014

Best Answer 

 #1
avatar+85918 
+10

No...the graph of g(x) is continous. The graph of f(x) will look similar to g(x), except there will be a "hole" at x = 4. The reason for this is that "4" makes the denominator of f(x) = 0......and that's not allowed.....

 

CPhill  Oct 29, 2014
Sort: 

1+0 Answers

 #1
avatar+85918 
+10
Best Answer

No...the graph of g(x) is continous. The graph of f(x) will look similar to g(x), except there will be a "hole" at x = 4. The reason for this is that "4" makes the denominator of f(x) = 0......and that's not allowed.....

 

CPhill  Oct 29, 2014

10 Online Users

avatar
We use cookies to personalise content and ads, to provide social media features and to analyse our traffic. We also share information about your use of our site with our social media, advertising and analytics partners.  See details