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I hope, you can help me with that:

 

Consider a cluster of n machines. Each has a probability p of failing in a given period of time T.

a) What is the probability of at least one machine failure during this period of time?

b) For $$0 \le k \le n$$, what is the probability $$p_k$$ (in terms of k, n and p) of exactly k machines failing during T?

c) Show that the probabilities from b) satisfy: $$p_1 + p_2 + ... + p_n = 1 - (1-p)^n$$

 

Thank you very much!

 Oct 31, 2014
 #1
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Assuming that all machines are functioning independently:

a) If the probability of failing is p, then the probability of working is (1 - p).

    The probability that all will keep working is (1 - p)^n; thus, the probability that at least one will fail is 

             1 - (1 - p)^n

b) The probability that exactly k machines will fail is n nCr k ·p^k·(1 - p)^(n- k)

c) Part b gives the individual probabilities, their sum will be the sum found in part a.

 Oct 31, 2014

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