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Suppose that A is an invertible matrix. Show that $$(A-rI)v = 0$$  implies that $$(A^{-1}-\frac{1}{r}I)v = 0$$.

 

Thanks 

 Jun 1, 2014

Best Answer 

 #1
avatar+33615 
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I assume r is a scalar and I is the identity matrix.

Amat

 Jun 1, 2014
 #1
avatar+33615 
+10
Best Answer

I assume r is a scalar and I is the identity matrix.

Amat

Alan Jun 1, 2014
 #2
avatar+2353 
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thank you Alan 

 Jun 2, 2014

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