taylor says that 40% of 50 is the same amount as 50% of 40. Is Taylor correct explain

Well, 40% of 50 can be written as:

$${\mathtt{0.4}}{\mathtt{\,\times\,}}{\mathtt{50}} = {\mathtt{20}}$$

And 50% of forty can be written as:

$${\mathtt{0.5}}{\mathtt{\,\times\,}}{\mathtt{40}} = {\mathtt{20}}$$

So yes, they are the same.

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