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Suppose we have a number n; if it is even divide by 2. If it is odd, multiply by 3 and add 1. Do all numbers lead to 1 if they follow this sequence? If true, prove why.

 Jul 2, 2020
 #1
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That is called the "Collatz's Conjecture" and it is not for you or me, but for top-notch mathematicians to prove or disprove! Good luck !

 Jul 2, 2020
 #2
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O I didn't know that. Thanks for letting me know!

 Jul 2, 2020

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