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Proof read your question.  It is garbage.

Please proofread your questions.

There is no actual question here.

I don't thnk your question is complete.  It doesn't make sense

WAITWAITWAIT

In this situation it is much easier to calculate the probability of the event we are looking for (he hits at least one target) by calculating the probability of its complement (he misses every target), and subtracting from 1.

In other words, we can use this strategy:

P(at least one hit)=1-P(miss all 10)

Calculations:

P(at least one hit)

=1-P(miss all 10)

=1-(0.9)^10

≈1-0.349

≈0.65

Answer:

P(at least one hit)≈0.65

oops....

Triangle(ACB)  is similar to  triangle(AEC)  is similar to  triangle(CEB).

geno did it 2 minutes before me lel :)

9*5*7*11*13=45045

45045-1=45044

If you want to find an integer that is a multiple of 5, 7 9, 11, and 13, multiply them together:  45045.

(You can skip 3, because any multiply of 9 will be a multiple of 3.)

Subtracting 1:  45044.

so 33 percent is 33/100

8*100/33*1/5=800/33*1/5=800/165

um....

this is unsolvable.........................

Since  49  =  7 x 7, you'll need two factors of 7.

These will occur in  14!, 15!, and 16!.

ARRRRRGH I did make a mistake. Too late to edit.   

I called the hypotenuse the area of the triangle.  

We don't' even care what the hypotenuse is.  The area of the triangle is one-half 12 • 12  

Quarter circle is 36π     Triangle is 72   

Sliver is 36π  – 72         Thus the total area is 2 • (36π – 72)   Just like the first Guest said.   

I will take 36 outside the parentheses               72 • (π – 2)   

_.

Hmmmmm    maybe this:

He has a .9 chance of MISSING ...in 10 tries

.9^{10  =} .348

chance of hitting then becomes   1 - .348 = .652     65 % chance of hitting at LEAST one

My approach is to get the area of half the shaded area,

then double that value for the area of the entire shaded area. 

Call the point where the two circles intersect, label it X. 

Call the point where the two diameters meet, label it Y. 

Draw a line from X to Y.    Draw a line from X to P. 

The line from X to P  and  the line from Y to P   mark off a quarter of circle P. 

Since the area of the whole circle P is πr² (144π), the quarter of the circle is 36π.  

There is a right triangle XYP with legs equal to 12 apiece,

so using Pythagoras Theorem, the hypotenuse is sqrt(288). 

Subtract the area of the right triangle from the area of the quarter circle. 

36π – sqrt(288)  gives you that little piece at the perimeter of the quarter circle. 

The other circle's little piece has the same amount

so the entire shaded area is 2 • (36π – sqrt(288) )  

Let's simplify that expression.  The sqrt(288) is sqrt(2•144) = 12sqrt(2) 

This makes the expression 2 • (36π – 12sqrt(2) )  so let's take 12 outside the parentheses 

2 • (12 • (3π – sqrt(2) )   =   24 • (3π – sqrt(2) )     

I've double & quadruple checked my figures, and I don't think I tangled them up anywhere. 

If I did make a mistake, then I hope somebody will show me how and explain it. 

I don't like it when my answer differs from another answer...  

_.

WAITWAITWAIT

are you cheating?!?!?

there is a (1point) and that is usually on tests. If you are trying to cheat on a test plz don't!

Ahhh... ok

so a 10percent chance to hit one target.

so if he tries ten times, there is a 10x10=100 percent chance that he will hit a target

so 100 percent.

I acually have no idea how to do this problem...

I'll give it my best shot.

I honestly couldn't find any other way than 18+2 =20

so 20?

I am most definently wrong

anybody help?

It would be three

@asinus it is not 1 because 1 is not prime

Corrected....sometimes the numbers 'triple'

Brandon is an amateur marksman. When he takes aim at a particular target on the shooting range, there is a 0.10. probability that he will hit it. One day, Brandon decides to attempt to hit 10 such targets in a row.

Assuming that Brandon is equally likely to hit each of the 101010 targets, what is the probability that he will hit at least one of them?

why does this look like a test at your school?

If I am wrong, good, but if I am right, plz don't cheat!

Ok, I am giving you the benifit of the doubt

it is. the second one 

remove the parenthesis and you will see the answer

what does 0.10.10,point,1 mean?

o = m

o / 3   * 2    = cost of oranges

m / 4 * 3     = cost of mangoes

o/3 *2 +5 =  m/4 *3           remember o = m

m/3 * 2 + 5 = m/4 * 3

m = 60       AND  o = 60           then o cost = 40     and    m cost = 45       total 85 dollars

Tan D = opp/adj = EF / DE  

Tan 25 = 19 / DE

DE = 19 / tan(25) = ....................

 idk 

30 minutes is  1/2 hr

4 km / (1/2 hr ) =   8 km/hr

Kyle : Steve   =   7:1       so there are  7+ 1 = 8 'shares'      each share is then 24/8 = 3 dollars

            so kyle has   7 shares = 21 dollars      then spends 11 dollars leaving 10 dollars.