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Probability of selecting one Lewis Carroll book (1/3)

Probability of NOT selecting one Lewis Carroll book (1-(1/3))

Probability of choosing exactly 2 Lewis Carroll books from 4 books

$$\Text {Solution }\\\\
\left( {\begin{array}{*{20}c} n \\ k \\ \end{array}} \right) = \dfrac{{n!}}{{k!\left( {n - k} \right)!}}\; \hspace{15pt}| \hspace{15pt} \Text {n=4 \; k=2\\$$

$$\left( {\begin{array}{*{20}c} 4 \\ 2 \\ \end{array}} \right) * \; \left ( \dfrac {1}{3} \right )^2 \; *\; \left ( \dfrac {2}{3} \right )^2 = \; \dfrac {8}{27} \; \approx \; 0.29629 \\$$

Thanks I was just mad at my homework.

500/5=100                         iu

Thanks. That's the answer I also got, when I tried it the second time. :)

narwhals

$${\mathtt{121}}{\mathtt{\,\times\,}}{\mathtt{121}} = {\mathtt{14\,641}}$$

$${\mathtt{121}}{\mathtt{\,\times\,}}{\mathtt{121}} = {\mathtt{14\,641}}$$

the answer is 256

6 is the answer

If they lost 30 games in 1/2 of a season, then twice this is a whole season.

So, twice 30 losses  =  60 losses.

Albebraically, we would have

G(30/81)  = L      where G is the number of games played and L is the number of total losses......

30 min  +  1 hr 44 min + 14 min  =

(30 +  104 + 14) min =  148 min   =

2 hrs and 28 min

And this added to 10:32 =

12:32 plus 28 minutes =

1:00 PM

Okay well this is just basic math

if there are 81 games in half a season and they lost 30 then

81-30=x

that will gove you half of the season,

then all you have to do is times x with 2 like so

x*2

and you will get the wins they "should" have by then end of the season

Since theirs different types of A does that mean AABBB and AABBB could be different.

AABBB

ABBBA

BBBAA

BABAB

BAABB

BABBA

ABABB

ABBAB

BBABA

um... >.<

Excellent

now see if you can write out all those permutations.

there are exactly 10 of them 😉

27x33

There are lots of "tricks"

If I was doing that in my head I'd say

3x20=60

3×7=21

So.  3×27=60+21=81

30×27=810

So 33x27=810+81=891

 5!/(2!×3!)

1*2*3*4*5=120

1*2=2

1*2*3=6

is it 120 divided by 6 * 2 ? $${\frac{{\mathtt{120}}}{\left({\mathtt{6}}{\mathtt{\,\times\,}}{\mathtt{2}}\right)}} = {\mathtt{10}}$$

Yes great.

5!      Is 5 factorial and it means

1x2x3x4x5

so what would  5!/(2!×3!) equal?

Pi has infinite numbers.

N!  indicates that we take the product of all the positive integers up to, and including, N

For example

4!  =  1 x 2 x 3 x 4   = 24

5! =   1 x 2 x 3 x 4 x 5 = 120

BTW....by definition....  0!  = 1

Just add the values and then divide by the number of them.

For example

3, 5, 7, 8

Add these  = 23

Then divide this by the number of values  =

23 / 4  =  5.75   =  the mean

Thank you!

Nvm I got it... it was 252 m²

how would "!" be written on paper?

A1 A2 B1 B2 B3

5 letters 

2A 

3B

so

 5!/(2!*3!) ?