Here is a good video on YouTube which is almost exactly this problem.....

https://www.youtube.com/watch?v=OGAxPWUB8H8

ln (p2/p1) = - hvap/r (1/T2 - 1/T1)          r = gas constant = 8.314     hvap = 569100 j/mol  p2 is 4 x p1

ln(4) =  -  56910/8.314(1/T2 - 1/295)      solve for T2

1.386294 = - 56910/8.314 (1/T2 - 1/295)

T2 = 313.74 K    for a vapor pressure 4 times higher than at 295K

No guarantee about this answer....but I am reasonably sure it is correct !

1/6
 

12 miles

Use Oval Circle Method 

tan 30/1=x/9 

Oval what the outcome =only numbers 

Circle the remaining letter 

x=tan 30 X 9/1

x=5.2

OOOOHHH!

            ^

I don't know why I said that. You didn't roast him, you weren't even trying to XD.

I think you meant tan 30 = x/9

9 tan 30 =  x = 5.196

You most certainly can, especially if you know how to use a "spreadsheet" such as Excel. But it is very easy even without a spreadsheet. All you do is Multiply your principal of $650,000 by 1.06 every year. Then you subtract your annual payment after you multiply it by 1.025. So, it should look somethig like this:
1-[$650,000 x 1.06] - $35,838.50 =$653,161.50 Balance after 1 year. This 1st payment already includes 2.5% inflation rate.
2-[$653,161.50 x 1.06] - [$35,838.50 x 1.025] =$655,616.73 Balance after year 2.
3-[$655,616.73 x 1.06] - [$36,734.46 x 1.025] =$657,300.91 Balance after 3 years. And so on, so that at the end of the 30th year you should have a balance of zero or close to it.
Good luck.

Dividing by 0 is undefined      not allowed     error  

.423    is   423/1000   and rational

30 / (1/6)  =  (30/1) / (1/6)  =  30/1  x  6/1  = 180

($248.55 + 306.81 +61.97)(.85) (1.06) = $ 556.21

                                             Af 331

It's 19 -_-

Thank you very much to all of you for the great help.

A question to Guest #3. Can I do my own "amortization schedule" on my computer? And would I go about it? Thanks a lot.

Use inverse operations and like terms. You think you're a big boy... do it. c: