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thanks you guys!

The Potrzebie, of course......Some prefer centimeters, but the Potrzebie is the much more functional - and better understood, internationally - term. It's flexibility for the measure of areas, volumes, etc. is also a desirable trait. It's generally defined as the thickness of the 26th issue of MAD Magazine and it equals about 2.263348517438173216473 mm.....give or take.......

I hope this helps.....(but it probably doesn't)

Like this....

1 over 6 is 1/6

2 over 3 is 2/3

Hope this helps!

MathCalc

Good, how are u? :]

Sorry mari, it was a joke.

How about cm or inches?

it would be either inches or centimeters i suppose

sorry what? @melody ?

Hey DQD and CPhill

Is it imperial minims?

Only answers converted to imperial minims will be accepted....

This is an interesting thought experiment.

I have a great affinity for imperial units of measure, especially imperial minims. I also have a great affinity for absurdly irrational units of measure, such as, light-years per fortnight, and Donkeypower. Twenty Mule Team cleaning power is in there, too.

One unit of measure I know you will appreciate: the Potrzebie. You are probably already familiar with it.

This thought experiment requires one more piece of information to answer in the desired units of imperial minims: a standardize tonic density of the “x” component.

If we figure that out, we might add to the list of humorous measurements.

---

I suppose if we were going fast enough it would not matter

Melody is correct, all we need to do is adjust the (Y) component of speed to compensate for any comparative values of the (X) component.

 Until next time. Live long and prosper!

~~D~~

Excellent idea.....at the end of the week.....if we deem that ND and Aziz have worked hard enough......we might let them share the coffee and donuts with us......but only if they work hard enough.... and we'll be the final judges of that....I may give up my sunglasses easily, but I don't give up coffee and donuts so easily..!!!!!

There is a method for determining this.......I'm still working on the reason for why it works....maybe I'll "see the light" later on.  But here it goes......

1. Take the number (without the factorial part) and divide it by 5....discard any "remainder' ...so we have..

486/5 = 97.2 = 97

2. Divide the number by succesive powers of 5 that are greater than 1 until we get a "decimal" answer..add all the whole number parts of the results...once we get a "decimal' answer only, we can stop.

3. Therefore, the next power of 5 is 5² = 25. So dividing 486 by 25, we get....19.44 = 19

4. And the next power of 5 = 5³ = 125 . And dividing 486 by 125, we have .....  3.888 = 3

5. Dividing by the next power of 5, (5⁴ = 625), we have.....  .7776, and we can stop !!!

So adding all the "whole number" results, we have ...  

97 + 19 + 3 =   ..... 119 zeroes.....

And there you go......I hate to do things "cookbook style" without having a total understanding of the reasons, but, hey...my old brain just doesn't function as well as it used to!!!!

Roughly 2.5

239.67 euros

No Ninja,

Anonymous wants YOU to do.!!!

Between you and Aziz, I think Chris and I can put our feet on the table and enjoy our coffee and donuts without a concern in all the world.  Does that sound good Chris?

Thanks guys.

I wouldn't say that I could handle this forum by myself though. You guys do alot around here!

I think this is what you mean:

To solve this, we can use the rule:

So now we have:

So our answer is a⁶

I think we can retire now, Melody!!!

It looks as if ND can handle the forum by himself............!!!!

Very nice, ND........!!!!

Poits and a Tumbs-Up !!!

Another excellent answer Ninja!

Are you wondering how many place values are in 486!

or are you wondering how many number 0's are in 486!?

I'm not sure if there is a formula to figure this out. I'm sure someone else will post an answer if there is.

Thank you!

We just need to "translate" this to algebraic language and solve! (just need to set it up as an algebra problem)

Let's bold the key words here:

"the difference between twice a number and 8 is twenty more than nine times the number"

"difference" means subtract

"twice a number" can be written as 2N

"is" means equals or =

"more" means to add

"nine times the number" can be written as 9N

Let's write it out and solve for N:

2N-8=20+9N          ---Subtract 2N from both sides

-8=20+7N             ---Subtract 20 from both sides

-28=7N                ---Divide both sides by 7

-4 = N

so

N = -4

Let's have N represent the first mystery number.

Since we need to find the next consecutive odd number, it will be two more than that number.

Here's a list of coonsecutive odd numbers starting from one: 1, 3, 5, 7, 9, 11, 13...etc.

Here you can see that the next consecutive odd number is two more than the last. This means the second mystery number can be written as N+2

They add up to 124, so now we can write this as an algebra problem.

N + N+2 = 124           ---Combine the N's to get 2N

2N + 2 = 124              ---Subtract 2 from both sides

2N = 122                     ---Divide both sides by 2 so we get N alone

N = 61

This tells us the first mystery number...but the second one was 2 more than that. Now we add two to 61 to find the second number

61+2= 63

Now we have the two numbers. 61 and 63.