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Cos of an angle must be between -1 and 1 so this question makes no sense!     

I suppose that you want tan a = opp/hyp

You can find the opposite using pythagoras' theorem.

$$\\(3+9i)-(8-9i)\\
=3+9i -8+9i\\
=3-8+ 9i+9i\\
=-5+18i$$

Let me see

the inverse of x=1 would be y=1

The inverse of y=1 is x=1

So if the inverse of g(x) is 1 then I suppose g(x) can be anything in the domain of x=1

Umm

$$g(x)=k\qquad where\; k\in R \qquad and\;x=1$$

I definitely invite others to comment on this one.     

Alright, so we have:

$$-\frac{3}{4} \div 3$$

When we have a negative infront of a fraction, we can carry that to the numerator (top number) It will remain the same.

$$\frac{-3}{4} \div 3$$

Which is the same as:

$$\frac{-3}{4} \div \frac{3}{1}$$

Now we SKIP, CHANGE, FLIP. When dividing two fractions, youSKIP the first fraction, CHANGE the division sign to a multiplication sign, and FLIP the second fraction.

$$\frac{-3}{4} \times \frac{1}{3}$$

We can now multiply the top and bottoms together.

$$\frac{-3 \times 1}{4 \times 3}$$

$$\frac{-3}{12}$$

Reduce the fraction

$$\frac{-3\div3}{12\div3}$$

$$\frac{-1}{4}$$

or

$$-\frac{1}{4}$$

25metres = 25 divided by 1000 km

1 second = 1/(60*60) hours

so 

$$\frac{25metres}{1sec}\\\\
=\dfrac{\frac{25}{1000}}{\frac{1}{60*60}}\;\; km/hour\\\\\\
=\dfrac{0.025}{\frac{1}{3600}}\;\; km/hour\\\\\\
=0.025 \div \frac{1}{3600}\;\; km/hour\\\\
=0.025 \times \frac{3600}{1}\;\; km/hour\\\\
=0.025 \times 3600\;\; km/hour\\\\\\$$

and you can finish it   

Anything divided by 1 stays the same.  so 4/1=4

How many feet per second is 30.0 miles per hour?

you are going to go a lot more feet than miles so it will be multiply

30*How ever many feet there  are in a mile.

Now there are 60 minutes in a an hour and 60sconds in a minute so

$$\frac{30miles}{1hour}=\frac{30*(the\; number \;of \;feet\; in\; a\; mile)feet}{1*60*60seconds}$$

I really do not know what I am talking about but I will play with it.

2 years of Profit before tax not including initial outlay.

$${\mathtt{90\,000}}{\mathtt{\,\times\,}}\left({\mathtt{35}}{\mathtt{\,\times\,}}{\mathtt{2}}{\mathtt{\,-\,}}{\mathtt{22}}{\mathtt{\,\times\,}}{\mathtt{2}}\right){\mathtt{\,-\,}}{\mathtt{400\,000}}{\mathtt{\,\times\,}}{\mathtt{2}}{\mathtt{\,-\,}}{\mathtt{55\,000}}{\mathtt{\,\times\,}}{\mathtt{2}} = {\mathtt{1\,430\,000}}$$

$$2 Years of depreciation= $840000*2/7 = \$240000$$$

2 years of Profit after depreciation  $${\mathtt{1\,430\,000}}{\mathtt{\,-\,}}{\mathtt{240\,000}} = {\mathtt{1\,190\,000}}$$

2 years worth of tax = $${\mathtt{0.3}}{\mathtt{\,\times\,}}{\mathtt{1\,190\,000}} = {\mathtt{357\,000}}$$

2 years of profit after tax = $${\mathtt{1\,190\,000}}{\mathtt{\,-\,}}{\mathtt{357\,000}} = {\mathtt{833\,000}}$$

I have no idea what a 2 year incremental is and I have little idea if any of this is correct or helpful.  lol.

Aziz is right, there should be units BUT

I think that you are just being asked to find

$$One ten thousandths of $10^{-8} = 10^{-4}*10^{-8} = 10^{-12}$ units$$

I think it would have to be the measure of the angle.

It is 1/18 of the circumference

So it is 1/18 of a revolution

so it is 1/18*360 degrees.

and you can finish it.

You need the ratio that uses Hypotenuse and opposite.  Which one is that?

1. Add the exponents 2 +4 giving you 4^6. Now, you have 4^6/4^10. You can subtract 10 and 6 leaving you with: 1/4^-4. Since we don't want negative exponents, the answer is 4^4. You can move the denominator to the numerator by changing the exponent's sign.

2. What is 2^3? 2*2*2 = 4*2 = 8...now what's 8^3? 8*8*8 = 64*8 = 512.

Lots of questions!

1. Think of 0.1*0.1*0.1*0.1 in fraction form: 1/10*1/10*1/10*1/10 = 1/10,000 = 0.0001. Correct.

2. 1/ (6^2) --> Remember, you can move 6^2 to the numerator if you change the sign of the exponent from positive to negative.

3. Add the exponents together. It is not B. 

4. Subtract the exponents to get a number, #; then 10^# will be your answer. Yes, it is B.

6. Subtract the exponents for number 4 just like you did for number 4 and multiply by the new exponent 3. C is correct.

7. You can separately multiply the two terms: All you have to do is multiply the exponents by 6 and that's it keeping the X in the middle.

I think that exp usually means 10 to the power of - but it still doesn't make sense.

Another big one lost.

This is really painful.

We need a draft availability.

Anyway, this is what I used

The dimensions of a 2 liter bottle depends on the shape. A 2 liter soda bottle is 12.25 inches high and 4 inches in diameter. 

from

sqrt(...)

Ex. sqrt(16).

Finish the question: What is the measure of _________________?

What are the units of the 1/10,000 and 10^-8? 

What is the size of the 2 liter bottle? They come in different shapes.

So, the experiment is repeated 8 times and the probability of getting a 2 is 1/6.

So, the mean will be 8*1/6 = 8/6 = 4/3.

The standard deviation would be 4/3 + or - 4/3 for 1 standard deviation, 4/3 + or - 2(4/3) for 2 standard deviations and so on.

There is no question here; maybe you wanted a conversion from inches to yards or feet?

If yards, 622/36 = ___ yards.

If feet, 622/12 = ___ feet.