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im sure you would not!

Oh I bet I could win an argument with you

That's fine Rosala.....I checked with Melody before.....you don't have to like everything!

Ha ha...thanks Melody!  I think you know I didn't mean any of this........

I do Rosala, I think that it is fabulous!!!

im really sorry happy but i just dont find this funny but rude and irrespective!i know Zegroes calls Melody and CPhill from StoneAge or something but he would never post such referring pics about them!im sorry i just didnt like this post much!

That is absolutely hilarious Happy. 

ROF LOL   ROF LOL  ROF LOL   

I am in stitches of laughter  !!!!

Come on anon (vick101) this is almost identical to the one I just did.  Only the interest rate is different.

You can do this one yourself :)

Oh God so much coments!im so tired of reading all of them!

And what ZEGROES YOU CALLED ME ODD??first of all...HOW DARE YOU? secondly im am far better than odd and thirdly you never never won an arguement with me (infact no one can) and...always just opted out or lost!so hello Mr.Zeg-rose,pls visit the doctor!

And 7up i am extremly happy and excited about your play!

Looks like you are having calculator troubles.....when you put in a fraction,  put it in parentheses,  or the calc thinks you are just dividing normally

It isn't $0.25

It is 0.25........

You can clear the comnplex number from the denominator by multiplying both top and bottom by the complex conjugate of the number on the bottom.  Using your example we have

$$\frac{4i}{-3+6i}$$

The complex conjugate of -3 + 6i is -3 - 6i, so

$$\frac{4i}{-3+6i}=\frac{4i(-3-6i)}{(-3+6i)(-3-6i)}$$

Now the denominator can be expressed as the difference of two squares:  (-3)² - (6i)² = 9 - 36i² = 9 + 36 = 45

and the numerator becomes -3*4i - 6i*4i = -12i -24i² = -12i +24 (or 24 - 12i)

Hence:

$$\frac{4i}{-3+6i}=\frac{24-12i}{45}$$

or $$\frac{4i}{-3+6i}=\frac{8-4i}{15} = \frac{8}{15}-\frac{4i}{15}$$

.

$$\underset{\,\,\,\,{\textcolor[rgb]{0.66,0.66,0.66}{\rightarrow {\mathtt{l, c, p}}}}}{{solve}}{\left(\begin{array}{l}{\mathtt{L}}{\mathtt{\,\small\textbf+\,}}{\mathtt{C}}{\mathtt{\,\small\textbf+\,}}{\mathtt{P}}={\mathtt{200.3}}\\
{\mathtt{L}}{\mathtt{\,\small\textbf+\,}}{\mathtt{12.8}}={\mathtt{P}}\\
{\mathtt{L}}{\mathtt{\,\times\,}}{\mathtt{3}}={\mathtt{C}}\end{array}\right)} \Rightarrow \left\{ \begin{array}{l}{\mathtt{l}} = {\frac{{\mathtt{75}}}{{\mathtt{2}}}}\\
{\mathtt{c}} = {\frac{{\mathtt{225}}}{{\mathtt{2}}}}\\
{\mathtt{p}} = {\frac{{\mathtt{503}}}{{\mathtt{10}}}}\\
\end{array} \right\} \Rightarrow \left\{ \begin{array}{l}{\mathtt{l}} = {\mathtt{37.5}}\\
{\mathtt{c}} = {\mathtt{112.5}}\\
{\mathtt{p}} = {\mathtt{50.3}}\\
\end{array} \right\}$$

Nauseated, What you are saying is right.

But I didn't mean to offence anyone and I wrote it with purpose of joking.

I don't know what you are saying in German, but I hope it's not offending me.

Sorry if you are offended. 

2)  1000 pounds at the beginning of each half year

interest rate is 0.03 each half year

time period is 15 half years

Since payments are at the beginning of each period it is an annuity due

Since there is no money at the beginning and yourwant to know how much there is at the end it is a future value.

so

you need to use the future value of an annuity due formula with all the values I have given you.

Can you take it from there ?  :)

1)

At the end of year 1 he will have 39700*1.08-100 = 42776.00

At the end of year 2 he will have  42776*1.08-100=46098.08

then

$$\\68900=49098.08(1+0.08)^n\\\\
68900/49098.08=(1.08)^n\\\\
log(68900/49098.08)=log(1.08)^n\\\\
log(68900/49098.08)=nlog(1.08)\\\\
\frac{log(68900/49098.08)}{log1.08}=n\\\\
n=\frac{log(68900/49098.08)}{log1.08}\\\\$$

$${\frac{{log}_{10}\left({\frac{{\mathtt{68\,900}}}{{\mathtt{49\,098.08}}}}\right)}{{log}_{10}\left({\mathtt{1.08}}\right)}} = {\mathtt{4.402\: \!698\: \!337\: \!383\: \!920\: \!9}}$$

round up to 5 because he doestn't get the interest until the end of the year.

2+5=7 years  

Ok flflvm97, What formula did you use for this? Base X-9 ?

But 3.333...+3.333...+3.333...=1

$$S_n = \frac{1}{2}+\frac{1}{4}+\frac{1}{8}+...+\frac{1}{2^n}$$

If I multiply this by 2, then we can see it equals to S_n. (I don't think so!)

You should proof your work.

Using your logic, he should have linked the video in Chinese.

Vielleicht ist die Scheiße Kopf sollte Deutsch lernen.

Um von Heureka mathematischen Fähigkeiten zu lernen, wäre es der Mühe wert.

$$\\45000=PV(1+0.06/12)^{10*12}\\\\
45000=PV(1.005)^{120}\\\\
\frac{45000}{(1.005)^{120}}=PV\\\\
PV=\frac{45000}{(1.005)^{120}}\\\\$$

and you can put it into a calc.

he could get 4 because he could take the janitors sole as well

.

I guess this is a binary number.  To find its decimal equivalent do the following:

1*2⁷ + 0*2⁶ + 0*2⁵ +0*2⁴ + 0*2³ + 1*2² + 0*2¹ + 0*2⁰ = 132

.

Pi is a mathematical constant.

By the way, heureka

How do you know if he is german or not?

He wouldn't understand.

The probability that he will be german is 

World population = 7125000000

German population = 80620000

$$\frac{80620000}{7125000000}*100=1.13% (2 d.p.)$$

The percentage that him being German is 1.13%.

You should have linked video in english. 

I'm using my answer again.

If you want to get idea of what does it mean, there you go.

So the value of PI is the length from certain point on circle meet the ground to when a certain point on circle meet the ground again. Simply it's one length of a rolling.

Hope it helped!