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Thanksygygygygygygygyg

Using    ...    distance / rate = time, we have

The first train takes  5000/156 = about 32 hrs to reach its destination

The second takes  4353/ 212 = 20.5 hrs

Now....I'm assuming that the "12:00" is 13.5 hrs before the "1:30" or else it's clear that the second train will arrive first...so....using my assumption......

The first train will "win"  because it takes 11.5 hrs longer to reach its destination, but since it started 13.5 hrs. sooner than the second train, it reaches its destination about two hours earlier.....

Kalle eats 1/3 in one hour, Malin 1/6, and Joham 1/5

So (1/3) + (1/6) + (1/5)  = 10/30 + 5/30 + 6/30 =  21/30  = 7/10  of a watermelon in one hour

I'm assuming that you're saying that 2b = √3 a  →  a = 2/√3 b

And since angles B and C are equal...the sides opposite are equal.... so, b = c

And by the Law of Cosines

[(2/√3)b]^2 = b^2 + b^2 - 2(b^2)Cos (A)

(4/3)b^2 - 2b^2  -= -2b^2CosA

[2b^2 - (4/3)b^2] / (2 b^2) = Cos A

(2/3)b^2/ (2b^2) = cosA

1/3 = cos A

Cos^-1(1/3) = A = about 70.53°

And Cos [2(70.53) + 45] = Cos(186..06) = about  -.994

How many what, doofus?

Maybe you would get them faster if you stopped making your title look all fancy. 

Anon is clearly wrong. 1.5 as a fraction is one and a half, or 1 1/2.

The full thing: 

Simplifying x + -1(x + -4) = 6 Reorder the terms: x + -1(-4 + x) = 6 x + (-4 * -1 + x * -1) = 6 x + (4 + -1x) = 6 Reorder the terms: 4 + x + -1x = 6 Combine like terms: x + -1x = 0 4 + 0 = 6 4 = 6 Solving 4 = 6

1/2 or 1 over 2

x-(x-4)=6 -> No solution. It all comes down to 4=6, which is impossible to fix/solve.

This has no answer....the sine ratio of an angle  is never greater than 1....and the ratio 57.6 / 33.6 > 1

Wow you must be dumb but there is no such thing as 1 divided by 0, it's just 0 divided by 1. So the answer is 0. Sorry to be a smart a*s but I got to do what I got to do. It only makes sense.

9:30 AM to 3:15PM  =  5 + 3/4 hrs = 5.75 hrs

So   40 / 5.75   will give you your answer......

21 HAHA  i love that vine

X=15 hope that helps:)

.4% = .004

So...just multiply this by 36,071,641   and that will be your answer...

If the price of a pencil is 36% lower than the price of a pen, then the pencil's price is 1- 36% of the pen's price =.64pen

For argument's sake, let the pen's price be 1  .....Then the pencil's price = .64

Then

.64( 1 + P) = 1     where P is the % we're looking for...divide both sides by .64

1 + P = 1/.64

1 + P =  1.5625     subtract 1 from both sides

P = .5625  =  56.25%

Then the pen is 56.25% more than the pencil.

Another way to see this is that .36 must be added to the pencil's price of .64 to get the pen's price.

Thus 36/64 = 56.25% of the pencil's price must be added.......

.

dickbutt or 21

5^(-2)  = 1/(5^2)  = 1 / 25

3^2x+3x-2=0 →   9x + 3x - 2 = 0  →  12x - 2  = 0 →  12x = 2 → x = 1/6

50 mph.

Nice, Alan.....I always like these kind of problems....!!!

Here's the solving of the simultaneous equations....using the last two, we have

(x - 4)^2 + (y -3)^2 = (x - 4)^2 + (y + 4)^2  →

(y - 3) ^2  = (y + 4)^2

y^2 - 6y + 9 = y^2 + 8y + 16

14y + 7 = 0  →   y = -1/2

And using the first two equations, we have

x^2 + (-1/2)^2  = (x - 4)^2 +  (3 +1/2)^2 →

x^2 + 1/4 = x^2 - 8x + 16 + 49/4

8x = 28

x =28 / 8  = 7/2

And using the first equation, we have

(7/2)^2 + (1/2)^2  = r^2

49/4 + 1/4  = r^2

50/4 = r^2

(5√2)/ 2  = r  = (5/2)√2

Ahh, thank you both then!!!!