The amount (as long as it's the same in both situations) is irrelevant
Under the first scenario, we have (1 + .055/12)^(12* 5) = 1.3157037725362119
Under the second scenario, we have e^(.0525 * 5) = 1.300176468168491
The first option is better......
I don't think that you have ever had much 'grumpy' practice. :D
I could give you lessons if you want. :))
72/8 = about 9 years
The actual time is given by
ln(2)/ln(1.08) = about 9.006 years
P(A U B) = P(A) + P(B) - P(A ∩ B) ....so we have
P (A U B) = [ 1/2 + 1/3 - 1/4 ] = [ 5/6 - 1/4 ] = [20 - 6] / 24 = 14/24 = 7/12
6 is the answer
If the sum of the digits of a number is divisible by 3, then the number is divisible by 3.
So.....
5 + 5 + 8 = 18
Do you see the answer???
3t^2 + 39t - 90
Here's the factorization :
(3t + 45) (t - 2)
I'm not sure how the dimensions could be ascertained from this...........
We have
[8 + N] / [11 + N] = 2/3 cross-multiply
2[11+N]= 3[8 + N] simplify
22 + 2N = 24 + 3N subtract 24, 2N from both sides
-2 = N
Check
[8 - 2]/ [11- 2] =
6/9 =
2/3
(3/4)^x=5 take the log of both sides
log(3/4)^x = log(5) and by a log property, we have
x * log(3/4) = log(5) divide both sides by log(3/4)
x = log(5)/log(3/4) = about -5.6
The probability is given by
C(7,2) / C(15,2) = 1/5 or 20%
Another way to see this is that we have a 7/15 chance on the first draw of getting a red chip and a 6/14 chance on the second draw of getting a red one.
So
7/15 x 6/14 =
7/14 x 6/15 =
1/2 x 2/5 =
1/5
Here's a "formal" proof that shows that 1 + 1 = 2
http://tachyos.org/godel/1+1=2.html
{After seeing this, I think I'll just accept the proposition that 2 + 2 = 4 and that 3 + 5 really do sum to 8 !! }
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y=(x/2)-1
y+1=x/2
2(y+1)=x
so the inverse fuction is
y=2(x+1)
You made a little mistake at the end Badinage :/
154 = pi * r^2 divide both sides by pi
154/pi = r^2 take the positive root of both sides
about 7 cm
Don't worry....I'll be back to my old "grumpy" self in a few days......I've been sick and I'm out of practice......LOL!!!!
.025^3 = 0.000015625
(4/3) * pi * 0.000015625 =
0.0000654498469498 cubic units
Just as well one of us is 'nice' Chris :))
arctan is the same as inverse tan
use
[2nd] [atan]
Here's a pretty detailed answer.....http://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/History_of_mathematics
{Spoiler Alert.....nobody really knows}
Good, I expect you will know where Mr Google lives.
If you don't then maybe that is a better question.
Circumference = pi * d = pi * 28 = about 88 inches
Since the sum of the probabilites = 1, we have
1 - (1/2) - (1/5) =
10/10 - 5/10 - 2/10 =
3/10 and that's the probability of landing in region C
a= 94/150 or .63
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