All Answers 358098 Answers

You could do it like this:

A/B = 3/4   Multiply both sides by B

A = 3/4 B

Now substitute this result into the forst equation:

A + B = 56

3/4 B + B = 56

1 3/4 B = 56      Divide each side by 1 3/4

B = 32      So A  = 24

well y not and because it wants to be

because it is sad

OK sir. Now I understand what they are doing: they have given a bunch of nominal rates and they are converting them to annual effective rates, and they are compounding them semi-annualy:

So, what does that mean? It means as follows:

1-3.86% componded semi-annually is the same as 3.90% compounded annualy.

2-3.911% .................................................................3.95%...................................

3-3.95%....................................................................3.99%...................................

That's ALL it means. They are simply converting interest rates from compounded semi-annually to compounded annually. So, All the figures on the left hand side are equivalent to the right hand side when componded semi-annually. In other words, 3.95% compounded semi-annually is exactly the same as 3.99% componded annually.

Did you try it on a calulator?

4^521=4.7125 X 10^313, and

5^421=1.8466 X 10^294

I leave it for you to decide which is the bigger number!

What i got is 3.90 = 3.86%

3.95 = 3.911% 

3.99 = 3.95%

Is 3.99 the answer for this question? that's what it was asking about right.

Well sir. You posed the question. Who gave it to you? Ask them to clarify what they mean. I think they are trying  to compare interest rates when compounded to nominal rates. But I'm just guessing as to their intent.

Im actually don't understand what is the question asking about. can you help me please

It's very simple: you simply multiply $30 X 1.10517=$33.16, then take $2 for dividend and you get $$31.16 at the end of the 1st.year. Then multiply this amount by 10% comp. contin. and you get

$31.16 X 1.10517 -2=$32.43 at the end of 2nd. year. Finally, you multiply this amount of $32.43 X 1.10517=$35.84 forward price at the end of 3rd.year.

Your question is not very clear!. The 6-month rate of 3% is only for 6 months. So if you copounded it, you will get 1.03^2=6.09% equivalent annual rate. 4% compounded semi-annualy is eqivalent to 1.02^2=4.04% effective annual rate. So, you can compare the numbers you gave to these rates that I calculated.

i got the annual compounding rate which is 1(e^0.1/1 - 1) = 10.517%

But im not sure how to calculate with the $2 payment part. Can you show the solution please. 

Appreciate much

No!. The way you have it written is not right. But do you understand what I did? I basically took your spot rate of $30 & compounded @ 10% contiuously BUT, I also considered that $ 2 dividend was paid for 2 years. Considering all that the spot rate of $30 should be worth $32.43 at the end of 2 years. And then multiply this amount by 10% compounded contiuously and you get $35.84. At any rate, I believe my calculation to be more accurate, but is NOT very far from yours. Thank you & good luck.

should i just write down the answer :

Value is 30 * e^0.10 * 3 + 2 * e^0.10 = $35.45

Is this correct?

Hey there, thanks for the answer. Well i need to solution for this question even though i got the answer. Im not sure how to write down a proper solution for this question tbh.

This is a "hunch" solution!!!,

10% compounded contiuously is: 10.517% annual rate:

In two years the spot rate of $30, with a $ 2.00 payment should be: $32.43,

At the end of the third year the spot rate of $30.00 should be:

1.10517 X $32.43=$35.84. Well, what do you think, since you probably know the answer!!!!??.

who r u talking to i mean really 

9+10= 19

make it a division. for example if its three fourths, type 3 divided by 4

12 2/3 * 15,

3 X 12 +2=38/3 X 15

570/3=190

In math, it's usually meant to imply  "approximately"

I'm assuming that in (a) you're asking to prove that the limit of the function as it approaches positive/neg infinity  DNE....if so, we have this possibility

f(x) = x^2 / (x - 2)

lim             x^2 / (x - 2)        divide each term by x

x → inf

lim      x / (1  -  2 / x)  = ( inf ) / (1 - 2/ inf)  = ( inf ) / ( 1 - 0)  = (inf) / 1  = inf  = DNE

x → inf

By the same token.......as  lim f(x)→ neg inf  =  -inf / 1   = -inf  = DNE

(b)  The limit as x → 0  from both sides = 0.....but....the function does not exist at x = 2 because the denominator  = 0 at that point

Here's the graph.......https://www.desmos.com/calculator/zb8jv6lzn8

It's called "tilde" and it means something like = but not quite. Look it up in the dictionary.

LOOK IT UP IN THE DICTIONARY!!.

COMLETE YOUR QUESTION!!!!

YOU CREATE YOUR OWN FUNCTION & WILL TELL YOU IF YOU GOT RIGHT.!!!!, GOOD LUCK.