Thx

Log is the abbreviation for logarithm.

The logarithm is an operator that is used to find at which power you have to raise a number to get another.

In other words,

\(\forall n\in \mathbb{R}_{+}^{*},\forall b\in \mathbb{R}_{+}^{*}, \\\text{If } \log_b(n)=p\text{, then }b^p=n.\)

(The number b is called the base of the logarithm.)

Examples:

1. log₂(16)=4 because 2⁴=16
2. log₁₀(100)=2 because 10²=100
3. log_e(e⁸) is 8*.

*The number e is an irrationnal number called Euler's number (e≈2.71828182845904523536028747135266249775724709369995...). The logarithm of a number n to base e is also called natural logarithm of n and written ln(n).

0

1/16  =   1 divided by 16   ==   .0625

There is no such thing as LCD. There is LCM and GCD.

28

1/4 = 7/28    and   2/7 = 8/28      

Example: 10^2=100. We say 2 is the log of 100 to base 10.

That is when the original price is 2,1 and the discounted price is 1,19, then how big in % is the discount?

What is the correct mathematical calculation to the correct answer?4

Thank you for the answer in advance

1.19/2.1=.56667, so the discount is:

1 - .56667=.43334 X 100=43.334% is percentage discount, or the discount rate.

write the decimal that is equivalent to 1/16

=0.0625

 5 1/3 - 1 1/3=4

12 3/4 +5 3/7=509/28=18 5/28

1323545

Wrong!!!!

It's: 

3497.9111111111111111

-45+?=-18=27

56cbgg

23332

1/8 of 24=1/8 X 24=24/8=3

Division by 0 is impossible.

You can not divide any number by zero, even zero itself.

The reason is that it would give impossible equalities, like this:

1×0=0

If we divide each term by zero: 1=0/0

Now take 2×0=0

Do the same: 2=0/0

So 1 seems to be equal to 2.

That's why we do NEVER divide ANYTHING by zero.

Have you tried turning it off and back on again?

Thanks MrGenius for your answer; this is perfect.

20/20

for you, plus a brownie :

Just one more question : How could you read the post, since it had been flagged (I still wonder why it was, but I guess the moderators just didn't want the thread to go into a mess once again) ?

The formula to calculate this is :

\(\binom{N}{p}=\frac{N!}{(N-p)!\times p!}\)

Where N is the total number of numbers, and p the number of numbers the player choose.

Now, let's call Q the number of possible draws to the LOTO. Then Q is equal to:\(Q=\binom{49}{5}\times \binom{10}{1}=\frac{49!}{44!\times 5!}\times \frac{10!}{9!\times 1!}=19\: 068\: 840\)

So there are 19 068 840 possible lotery draws.

-3+5=2

/infinity = (x)infinity (1) (0 (1))

How do you solve this equation? 

\(\dfrac{1}{e^x - e^{-x}}= 2 \)

\(\begin{array}{rcl} \dfrac{1}{e^x - e^{-x}} &=& 2 \\ e^x - e^{-x} &=& \dfrac{1}{2} \qquad | \qquad \dfrac{e^x - e^{-x}}{2} = \sinh{(x)}\\ 2\sinh{(x)} &=& \dfrac{1}{2} \\ \sinh{(x)} &=& \dfrac{1}{4}\\ x &=& \text{arsinh}{ \left(\dfrac{1}{4} \right)} = \text{sinh}^{-1}{ \left(\dfrac{1}{4} \right)}\\ \mathbf{x} & \mathbf{=} & \mathbf{ 0.2474664615472692 } \end{array}\)

The sum of three consecutive odd integers is 207. What are the integers?

An odd number is 2n + 1

This odd number - 2 is also a odd number is 2n+1-2 = 2n-1

This odd number +2 is also a odd number is 2n+1+2 = 2n+3

Sum:

\( \begin{array}{rcl} (2n-1 ) + ( 2n+1) + ( 2n+3) &=& 207 \\ 6n+3 &=& 207 \qquad | \qquad : 3 \\ 2n+1 &=& 69 \qquad \text{ This is the second odd number} \end{array} \)

The first integer is 69-2 = 67
The second integer is 69
The third integer is 69+2 = 71