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All Answers 358087 Answers

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 #2
avatar+1491 
+5

Did you upload a picture? If so, it never showed up, try again.

HighSchoolCalculusDec 2, 2016
 #1
avatar+130511 
0

(4/3)/2   =

 

(4 / 3)  / (2 / 1)   =   invert the second fraction and multiply

 

( 4 / 3)  *  (1 / 2)   = 

 

4 / 6    =

 

2 / 3

 

 

 

cool cool cool

CPhillDec 2, 2016
 #1
avatar+130511 
0

OK....ask a math question.....we'll see if we can help.....

 

 

cool cool cool

CPhillDec 2, 2016
 #2
avatar+12530 
+5

It is also much shorter.

laugh

Omi67Dec 2, 2016
 #2
avatar+130511 
0

sec (pi)   =  1/ cos (pi)   =   1 / -1  = -1

 

So

 

[ sec (pi)]^2   =   sec(pi) * sec(pi)   = -1 * - 1  =  1

 

 

 

cool cool cool

CPhillDec 2, 2016
 #3
avatar+1002 
+5

Thank you both, its a little more clear to me. It seems so simple though?? maybe im over thinking it. i tend to do that laugh

TrincentDec 2, 2016
 #1
avatar-28 
0

I think 3.14159265 s2

TheMemeLordDec 2, 2016

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