All Answers 358150 Answers

Since 4 = 2²   --->   4^x-1  =  (2²)^x-1  =  2^2x-2

Since 2^2x-2  =  2^2x · 2^-2  =  2^2x · ¼  =  ¼ · 2^2x

4^x-1  =  2^x + 8   --->   ¼ · 2^2x  =  2^x + 8    --->   ¼ · 2^2x - 2^x - 8 = 0

Multiply by 4:   --->  2^2x - 4 · 2^x - 32 = 0 

Since  2^2x  =  (2^x)²     --->   2^2x - 4 · 2x - 32 = 0   --->  (2^x)² - 4 · 2^x - 32 = 0

Since A² - 4A - 32  =  0  factors into (A - 8)(A + 4)  =  0

Substitute 2^x for A:

[ 2^x - 8 ] [ 2^x + 4 ]  =  0

So, either 2^x - 8  =  0     or     2^x + 4  =  0

--->   2^x - 8  =  0   --->   2^x  =  8   --->   x  =  3    <--- Answer!

--->   2^x + 4  =  0   will not give a real answer.

Classify it under Rube Goldberg Solutions for complex math problems with trivial non-roman ZEROS.

Sub-classification: Put a Sock in it.

300000000000000000000000000000000000000000000000000000000000000000000000000000000000000000000000000x45=

13500000000000000000000000000000000000000000000000000000000000000000000000000000000000000000000000000

Welcome for the method!

2h 35min-1h=1h 35min

1h 35min-42min=53min

53min-25sec=52min 35sec

Answer is 52 minutes & 35 seconds.

(You must have a lot of money if you earn this much money!)

You're welcome!

thanks you 

7.7777777777777777783 hours

466.6666666666666667 minutes

Just to let you know.

The home page is a calculator.

And I'd like my computer not to lag, so if you use the calculator there, your answer will be found.

(This is probably a troll)

But...

They're different conversion rate, you can't measure between the two.

Unless you mean 512m of a cylinder/(any other container) filled with the liquid.

Then more information will be required.

Dividing by zero is undefined.

The answer on this calculator is ABC.

For now call your answer 0. 

Cancel out. :)

But is there a difference when cancelling between three numbers?

$${\mathtt{4}}{\mathtt{\,-\,}}{\mathtt{4}} = {\mathtt{0}}$$

sieben mal sieben sind neunundvierzig

(m - a)(m - b)(m - c) . . . (m - z) =

Infinity is a concept.....it has no "numerical" value........

If the bottom of the ladder is 2.25m from the wall and the ladder is 6m in length, we can use the cosine inverse to find the angle opposite the wal....we have

cos^-1(2.25/6)  = about 67.98°

Ok I am glad that it makes sense so far    

$$\\34\frac{1}{8}\times \frac{14}{51}\div 1\frac{15}{34}\\\\
\frac{(34*8+1)}{(8)} * \frac{14}{51} \div \frac{(1*34+15)}{(34)}\\\\
= \frac{273}{8} * \frac{14}{51} \div \frac{49}{34}\\\\
= \frac{273}{8} * \frac{14}{51} * \frac{34}{49}\\\\
$Done, it all makes sense now.$$$

Well I am glad it all makes sense, What are you going to do next?  (no multiplying!)     

Hello anonymous !

Right triangle

c = 6 m

b = 2,25 m

sin β = b / c = 2,25 m / 6 m = 0,375

β = arc sin 0,375

β = 22,0243° = 22° 1' 27,5''      from the wall

cos α = b / c = 2,25 m / 6 m = 0,375

α = arc cos 0,375

α = 67,975687° = 67° 58' 32,5''     opposite the wall

With regards, asinus :- )

48= 48/1

$$\\\frac{48}{1}\times\frac{5}{12}\\\\
\frac{48\times5}{1\times12}\\\\
=\;\frac{240}{12}\\\\
Simplify\quad(\div\;both\;by\;12)\\\\
=\;\frac{20}{1}\\\\
=\;20$$

(I was taking a risk, up there in the Latex, i was going to do this but then i followed this i had 2 ideas planed)

I'm here!

$$\\34\frac{1}{8}\times \frac{14}{51}\div 1\frac{15}{34}$$

So convert.

(34*8+1)/(8) * (14)/(15)  /  (1*34+15)/(34)

Conversion

= (273)/(8) * (14)/(15)  /   (49)/(34)

Simplify

= (273)/(8) * (14)/(15)  /   (49)(34) 

Umm...Changing?

=(273)/(8) * (14)/(15)  *  (34)(49)

Done, it all makes sense now.

(The reason I canceled before changing it from an improper fraction to a mixed number, is because you had shown it in one of your examples)