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How do I compute the yearly payment for a loan of $500,000 at 12% interest which is amortized over a five year period

You can do it with the present value of an  ordinary annuity formula

$$\\PV = C*\frac{1-(1.12)^{-5}}{0.12}\\\\
500000 = C*3.604776\\\\
c=500000\div 3.604776\\\\
Yearly\;Payment\;=\;\$138,704.87$$

Yep....just type in any number and hit the " = " sign......the number will be displayed in scientific notation.....

4x^2-72x-225=0      this will not factor .....  using the on-site solver, we have.....

$${\mathtt{4}}{\mathtt{\,\times\,}}{{\mathtt{x}}}^{{\mathtt{2}}}{\mathtt{\,-\,}}{\mathtt{72}}{\mathtt{\,\times\,}}{\mathtt{x}}{\mathtt{\,-\,}}{\mathtt{225}} = {\mathtt{0}} \Rightarrow \left\{ \begin{array}{l}{\mathtt{x}} = {\mathtt{\,-\,}}{\frac{\left({\mathtt{3}}{\mathtt{\,\times\,}}{\sqrt{{\mathtt{61}}}}{\mathtt{\,-\,}}{\mathtt{18}}\right)}{{\mathtt{2}}}}\\
{\mathtt{x}} = {\frac{\left({\mathtt{3}}{\mathtt{\,\times\,}}{\sqrt{{\mathtt{61}}}}{\mathtt{\,\small\textbf+\,}}{\mathtt{18}}\right)}{{\mathtt{2}}}}\\
\end{array} \right\} \Rightarrow \left\{ \begin{array}{l}{\mathtt{x}} = -{\mathtt{2.715\: \!374\: \!513\: \!859\: \!981\: \!6}}\\
{\mathtt{x}} = {\mathtt{20.715\: \!374\: \!513\: \!859\: \!981\: \!6}}\\
\end{array} \right\}$$

That's a very crafty way to solve that problem, Melody.....I wouldn't have thought of that......!!!!

Yeah....I think it's a combination........we have

C(10, 8)  = [ 10! ] / [(10 - 8)! * 8!] =  [10!] / [2! * 8!]   =  [10 * 9] / 2   = 90 / 2   = 45

This will be the graph of a line........we can pick any value for x and solve for y......for instance, when x = 3, y = 0....here's the graph....

So...I assume you have this :

cosθ = 0.9495     .....we can use the cosine inverse to find θ   ....remember that the inverse trig functions return an angle value....!!!

And we  have ....    cos^-1(0.9495) = about 18.29°

Using dimensional analysis, we have.....

17000ft / sec  *   1 mi/ 5280 ft  * 3600 sec / 1 hr  = about  11590.90  mph 

combination ?

TR - you forgot the decimal point in your final answer.     

Assuming once-a-year compounding, we have

1070.68  = 510(1 + .05)^N  ........where N is the number of years   divde both sides by 510

1070.68/510  =  (1 + .05)^N       take the log of both sides

log (1070.68/510)  = log (1.05)^N      and we can write

log (1070.68/510)  =  N log (1.05)      divide sides by log (1.05)

log (1070.68/510)/log(1.05)  = N  = about 15.2 years

$${\frac{{\mathtt{10}}}{{\mathtt{8}}}} = {\mathtt{1.25}}$$

10/8 does not equal 45

$${\frac{{\frac{{\frac{{\mathtt{10}}}{{\mathtt{8}}}}}{{\mathtt{2}}}}}{{\mathtt{2}}}} = {\frac{{\mathtt{5}}}{{\mathtt{4}}}}$$

$${\frac{{\mathtt{5}}}{{\mathtt{4}}}}$$=1 1/4

$${\frac{{\frac{{\mathtt{1}}}{{\mathtt{4}}}}{\mathtt{\,\times\,}}{\mathtt{25}}}{{\mathtt{25}}}} = {\frac{{\mathtt{25}}}{{\mathtt{100}}}}$$

$$1 25/100= 1.25$$

i have no idea how you got 45, but that is not correct

it equals actually 125!

Let N be the unknown number..."quotient"  means "divided by"...so we have......

N /  43 - 87  = -75      add 87 to both sides

N / 43   =  12        multiply both sides by 43

N = 516

omg you anons seriously have to be joking

k lets do this with pictures, with this I representing 1

I I + I I I I = I I I I I I

2+4=6

see, does this explain a lot?

hmm, maybe youre right Melody

which is why lets start part 2 of operation doomsday already!

Part II: Operation Eurasia

Goal: Take over the lands of Europe and Asia

Now that we conquered all of Arabia (saudi arabia, emirates, etc.), we can use this to our advantage and store all the stuff we will steal from Eurasia

nations to attack:

-Vietnam

-Russia

-Germany

-France

-England

-Scotland

-Finland

-Sweeden

Nations in Eurasia already under control:

-Japan

-China

-North/South Korea

-Arabian Penninsula

-Italy

-Greece

-Mongollia

once we conquer all of these nations, Eurasia will be ours! and that'll mean 5 continents under Royal Control: North America, South America, Europe, Asia, and Antarctica.

plan first and second attack in 13 hours:

Vietnam and Russia, were coming for you!

*fires the cannon for call of prep for invasion

you just wave and say hi with your smile :D

-answered by Bob Swing

You have MORE THAN 1.6 hours a day for taking over the world TR.

I was quite generous with some of my time allocations. You could take a bit of some of those. :) 

That is 1 divided by 20 factorial.

1 / 20!

$${\mathtt{20}}{!} = {\mathtt{2\,432\,902\,008\,176\,640\,000}}$$

So it is 1/that number.

20! Gives You the number of different orders you can arrange 20 objects in.

It is LOTS !!!

aww dont worry denzel. its not like you failed the test to enter Paradise.

ok, you failed this year. it doesnt mean youll fail the next. you can still do this with skill, and a lucky feather as well. :)

and me you forgot to mention

oh, and:

Welcome To The Math Forums!

who am I you ask?

the world knows me as Titanium Rome, one of the greatest evil masterminds that ever lived on the forums! I come here not only to answer questions, but also to attempt to rule the forums!

anyways, hows your first day going so far?

perhaps let an evil mastermind explain that Melody

you see here, you are correct Melody. doing homework, school, dumb chores, family improvements, bed time, food, etc. will lead to 1.6 hours of free time

the one thing you forgot though was this:

TIME TO TAKE OVER THE WORLD!!!

we, as teenagers, have (maybe not the smartest, but) the most diverse and unique masterminds

we have minds that often bring conflict with younger siblings (obviously), parents, the law, the elderly, etc.

cuz our minds are so unique that they work in a complex way that not even mr. einstein or mr. holmes can figure it out

as teens, we all have one thing in mind, and thats to take over and rule the world! and to do that per day takes averagely 3 hours. thats the problem, were too busy doing all the above that it wont even let us have time to live the life.

so the answer to Melody's question:

Q: WHERE IS THE PROBLEM WITH STUDYING 4-5 HOURS DAILY FOR 1 YEAR?

A: NO TIME TO TRAIN OUR MINDS TO BECOME THE BEST OF THE BEST!!!

Hi Just Got an account same person that said  easy! same answer

3(-2) - 4(3)=?

(3x-2) - (4x3) =?

-6 - 12= -18

3/9= 3 ÷ 9= 0.333

3(-2) - 4(3)=?

(3x-2) - (4x3) =?

-6 - 12= -18

 easy!

If it's simple interest the equation is 500,000(.12)=x

If it's compund then the eqquation is a little different. 500,000(.12)^5=x

Just type that into your calculator and you're good to go. I really hope this isn't your homework or something, because that would be totally uncool for you to be cheating like this, taking advantage of the math experts on this website. Just remember, if this is your way of cheating, you can't have electronics on a test and you'll fail.