Here is something for you to think about amnesia :))
It is not very technical but
You are graphing dy/dx against x from x1 to x2
The integral
\(\int_{x_1}^{x_2}\;\frac{dy}{dx}\;dx\)
is the sum of an infinite number of rectangles from x1 to x2
remember that d stands for difference and The integral sign is a stylized S which stands for sum (that is my interpretation anyway and it makes total sense)
So with the integral we have (from x1 to x2)
\(\frac{\text{difference in ys}}{\text{difference in xs}}*\text{difference in xs}\\ =\text{difference in ys because the x'es cancel out}\\ =y_2-y_1\)
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This is why definite integration gives an area.
\(\int_{x_1}^{x_2}\;y\;dx\\ \text{This is all the infinitely thin y heights multiplied by all the infinitely thin x widths }\\\text{over the domain }x_1 \;to \;x_1\\ and\\ \text{y *x is the area of a rectangle. Add all these skinny areas together and you have the area under the curve.}\)
In all this discussion i have used y instead of f(x) because it is usually easier to interprete, but they are the same thing.
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Anyone is welcome to comment of course but do not criticize my lack of technical talk unless you truly believe it to be totally incorrect.
This is how I see it in a fairly non-mathematically precise way. :)