All Answers 358818 Answers

No Civonamzuk,

As soon as you multiply by 100 you must REMOVE the percent sign :)

If you did that then your answer would be right but your working would still not make much sense. 

At the present time your answer is correct but it does not correspond to the working you have shown!

Yes, that was good thinking Civonamzuk :)

This is the best way to do this question.

135% of 40

= 135/100    *   40                     OR        1.35*40 = 54

$${\frac{{\mathtt{135}}}{{\mathtt{100}}}}{\mathtt{\,\times\,}}{\mathtt{40}} = {\mathtt{54}}$$

What you have written is not correct Civonamzuk.

(40/100)*135% = 54    THIS IS WRONG    

(40/100)*135%=(40/100)*135/100=0.54

$$\left({\frac{{\mathtt{40}}}{{\mathtt{100}}}}\right){\mathtt{\,\times\,}}\left({\frac{{\mathtt{135}}}{{\mathtt{100}}}}\right) = {\frac{{\mathtt{27}}}{{\mathtt{50}}}} = {\mathtt{0.54}}$$

okay, thanks Alan  

Civonamzuk's Statement.

(1,500/100)*2.1% = 31.5

This statement is not correct Civonamzuk    

2.1%=2.1/100 = 0.021

so

(1,500/100)*2.1% = (1,500/100)*0.021 

$$\left({\frac{{\mathtt{1\,500}}}{{\mathtt{100}}}}\right){\mathtt{\,\times\,}}{\mathtt{0.021}} = {\frac{{\mathtt{63}}}{{\mathtt{200}}}} = {\mathtt{0.315}}$$

If a vector is given in polar coordinates by (r, θ) then it can also be written as r∠θ (which electrical engineers do a lot!).

Multiplying two together is just a combined stretching (r1*r2) and rotating (θ1 + θ2) transformation.

.

This looks like you've supplied the variance of a binomial distribution with n = 1245 trials and probability of success, p = 0.42.

Mmm, thanks Alan, I still don't have any concept of what it means.

Does it have a pictorial representation or a situation word problem that I could understand where it would be useful?

tan^-1 is the same as atan.  On the calculator, first press 2nd then atan will appear.

.

Note to the first anon.

You are right there can only be one equal sign per equation.

There are actually 2 equations here. It would have been better if they had been put on different lines or seperated more so that it was more obvious.

You can only solve a single equation if you have only one unknown.

But if you have 2 equations that get solved 'simultaneously' then you can have 2 unknowns.     

Electrical engineers commonly use this sort of representation for the magnitude and phase of ac electrical currents; but in general you could use it for any two-dimensional vectors expressed in polar coordinates.

.

oh, btw, thats not how real news reporters do it

real news reporters just say the facts and events going on in the forums WITHOUT taking a side or expressing any opinion unless if absolutely necessary

this sounded more like a rant than a news report

go and learn from heather. maybe youll learn a thing or two about news reporting

good day, gno

Thanks Chris,

I always think of it this way.

Let X be the original price.

Then 95% of X = 741

$$\\95\% * X = 741\\\\
$Divide both sides by 95$\%\\\\
X=741\div 95\%\\\\
X=741\div 0.95$$

Replace the x's in f(x) with the arguments given; so, for example:

f(2) = -3 - 2 + (2*2)*(2*2), which simplifies to: f(2) = 11

With the other two, you will still be left with an algebraic expression as neither the numerical value of k, nor the form of function g is supplied.  That is you just have to replace x by k+1, and x by g(2). 

.

if 6th graders MAD=0.4

and 7th graders MAD=1.2

I think the 7th graders are 3 times more variable in height.  

You probably take the ratio of the two MADs, so either 1.2/0.4 or 0.4/1.2 depending on which applies to seventh graders and which to sixth graders, which you don't specify!

.

MathsGod, you need to fix your post up :) 

1 mm is 0.1 cm so 70 mm = 7 cm and 80 mm = 8 cm.

VS = pi*7²*8 cm³ = 392*pi cm³

.

Use ncr(20,3) on the calculator on the home page here.

.

Thaks fiora :)

4/6  is  NOT 50%!         3/6 is!

Almost

It is      $$r\approx8.79\qquad NOT\;\; r^2$$

what 2.1% of 1,500

(1,500/100)*2.1 = 31.5

what number is 135% of 40

(40/100)*135 = 54